Unit 9 Unit Review (Lesson 90)
Unit 9: Unit Review
Lesson 81, David Becomes King
1 Samuel 16:10 - Did Jesse have eight sons as indicated in this verse, or only seven as indicated in 1 Chronicles 2:13-15?
What do you think?
Solutions
Dead Brother
Left-out Brother
Lesson 82, God’s Promise to David
Isaiah 9:6 - Why is Jesus called “the everlasting Father” if He is the Son of God?
What do you think?
Solutions
Jesus is a Father to His People
Eternal Father. The Messiah will be a Father to His people eternally. As Davidic King, He will compassionately care for and discipline them (40:11; 63:16; 64:8; Pss 68:5, 6; 103:13; Pr 3:12).
Everlasting Father. A “father” here is a benevolent protector (cf. Isa. 22:21; Job 29:16), which is the task of the ideal king and is also the way God himself cares for his people (cf. Isa. 63:16; 64:8; Ps. 103:13). (That is, this is not using the Trinitarian title “Father” for the Messiah; rather, it is portraying him as a king.)
Jesus is Father of Eternity
Lesson 83, David Disobeys God
1 Kings 11:4 - In light of David’s sin with Bathsheba, how could this passage say his heart was loyal to the Lord?
What do you think?
Solutions
Remember God’s Grace
Understand the Contrast
Lesson 84, Absalom Rebels
2 Samuel 24:1 - How can this passage claim that God moved David to number Israel when 1 Chronicles 21:1 claims that it was Satan?
What do you think?
Solutions
First Ch 21:1 credits Satan with enticing David, but no contradiction exists. Both verses are correct; God is able to use even Satan to accomplish his purposes (Jb 1:12; 2:6). Here, God allowed Satan to entice David to count the people, an act that, while acceptable under certain circumstances (Ex 30:12), here probably revealed that David was putting trust in his military power rather than in the Lord’s protection and guidance.
24:1 Here the text says, the LORD … incited David, while 1 Chron. 21:1 reads, “Satan … incited David.” The Lord allowed Satan to incite David. God himself never does evil, but sometimes he uses evil moral agents (demons and sinful human beings) to accomplish his purposes.
Lesson 85, Praises to God
Psalm 3:1 - How could David have written this Psalm when critics insist that most Psalms were not completed until much later?
What do you think?
Solutions
One, the ancient documentary evidence credits David as the author.
Two, David was capable as a true poet (2 Sam. 1:17-27).
Three, David possessed the rich imagination to write poetry (2 Sam. 1:19-27).
Four, David was a good musician (1 Sam. 16:18-23) which would’ve help him compose psalms that later comprised the ancient hymnal of Judaism.
Fifth, David probably composed the music that was later used in Solomon’s temple (1 Chron. 6:31-32) in which the psalms were sung.
Sixth, the Bible says that David was endued with the Holy Spirit (1 Sam. 16:13), thus enabling Him to write this inspired poetry.
Seventh, David was deeply spiritual (2 Sam. 7), something obviously true of the psalms attributed to David.
Eighth, Psalm 18, for example, is recorded in 2 Samuel 22, where it is directly attributed to David.
Ninth, David swore on his death bed that God spoke through His mouth as the “sweet psalmist” of Israel (2 Sam.23:1).
Finally, both the Lord Jesus and the NT writers verified by name that David wrote specific psalms attributed to him in the Old Testament inscriptions (Psalm 2-Acts 4:25-26; Psalm 32-Romans 4:7-8; Psalm 95-Hebrews 4:7-8; Psalm 110-Matthew 22:44).
Lesson 86, Solomon Asks for Wisdom
1 Kings 4:26 - How can this verse say Solomon had 40,000 stalls when 2 Chronicles 9:25 says he had only 4,000 stalls?
What do you think?
Solution
Probably Copyist Error
4:26 had 40,000 stalls. Though the Heb. text reads 40,000, this was probably a copyist’s error in transcribing the text, and it should read 4,000 as in 2Ch 9:25.