Jesus on Divorce.

1. The historical nature of divorce in Jesus day.

A. Only men had the legal ability to divorce

B. Some scholars in Jesus day were torn to either allow divorce in any context (even if for any dissatisfaction) or to only allow it under the circumstance in adultery.

2. The actual word used by Jesus.

a. The word used by Jesus in v.32 uses is the word “Porneia’ and in Matthew 19:9.

b. But adultery in the technical sense is “moy-khah-o’.

c. Whats the primary difference?

d. Of course ANY form sexual activity outside of marriage is grounds of divorce.

e. For the word “porneia” it means fornication. Most of us were taught that it means sex outside of marriage. Because that's what it means in English.

f. But the greek word is actually way broader.

g. “Porneia” actually means ‘Licentiousness’. Which in the marriage context it is not being faithful to the covenant vows. It is not exclusive to only sexual immorality.

h. So any form of abuse, lack of financial support, and emotional availability are grounds for divorce according to Jesus.

3. Jesus loves the outcast.

a. Because of the historical nature of what divorce was you can see how it led to a lot of abuse.

b. Jesus here sides with the scholars who say divorce are only permissible under sexual immorality.

c. He does so that the women who were divorced will have dignity and be treaded as a image bearer of God. And be protected.

d. So according to Jesus if a man divorces his wife due to an illegitimate reason is still attached to her.

4. Application

a. We see a glimpse how Jesus wants marriage to work.

b. To view each other fellow image bearers of God. To have respect, love, and to treat each other with dignity.

c. So that as one. You both reflect the status of image bearers to a lost and dying world.